Yea, the SPR concept is confusing, and my terrible explanation probably made it worse. Here are some things about SPR to try to clear it up.
1. It only pertains to the ratio on the flop.
2. The point of SPR is to make postflop decisions easier
3. Target SPR is the optimal ratio
when you get it all in.
4. SPR uses concepts such as commitment and implied odds.
5. SPR can be used to create a favorable situation for you
6. Or an uncomfortable situation for your opponent.
7. SPR and Pot odds are two different ideas, but are not mutually exclusive.
8. SPR concepts
apply more to starting hands that make overpairs or top pair.(Ignore what I wrote about a target spr of 20 for 7-8)
9. Target SPRs will help prevent making expensive mistakes.
So I'm going to borrow from your example below and make a couple changes and give three sample hands:
Hand 1.
You have 89s in position and Villain has KK.
The pot is 100 on the flop, where you have a draw and villain has an overpair
You both have
1300 effective in chips. so SPR = 13Villain bets pot on flop (100) and turn (300).
Pot is 900 and you both have 900 remaining.
On the river, the Villain is in an uncomfortable spot, with one pair and teetering on commitment.
Does he bet into you after you just called two pot sized bets? Does he check call a shove? Check fold to a shove? Did you make his draw, slow play 2 pair, or is stealing??? (Notice that the river card is irrelevant to an extent.). It's not so much that a medium SPR of 13 is good for 87, but that it is BAD for KK.
Hand 2 (same setup but I've changed the stack sizes).
You have 89s in position and Villain has KK.
The pot is 100 on the flop, where you have a draw and villain has an overpair
You both have
500 effective in chips. so SPR = 5Villain bets pot on flop (100) and turn (300).
Pot is 900 and you both have 100 remaining.
So obviously a no brainer for the Villain after the flop. Your decisions are easier because you are in a situation where an all in commitment is straightforward.
Hand 3 (same setup as 1 but the preflop raises were bigger making the pot bigger on the flop).
You have 89s in position and Villain has KK.
The pot is 400 on the flop, where you have a draw and villain has an overpair
You both have
2000 effective in chips. so SPR = 5Villain bets pot on flop (400) and turn (1200).
Pot is 3600 and you both have 400 remaining.
In this last example the Villain was able to manipulate the pot size through preflop raise sizing to get the pot size to be a good SPR for his starting hand. This is how you would apply target SPR based on your hand. The flip side, and a much more advanced play, is creating bad SPRs for your opponents, so that you can outplay them post flop.
To be honest, this SPR concept really only applies against fairly good players. Like any poker theory, it's wasted on total Donkeys or Calling Stations. It might be a bit much to try to employ on a regular basis, but the theory and concepts behind it one that should be always in the back of your mind; a
nd that is planning your hand out, planning around commitment, and considering implied odds.PhilGnFla Wrote:
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> I am really struggling trying to understand this
> concept and how to apply it. Lets say you played
> the 89s and flop a flush draw. You have 2000 chips
> and the pot size is 100 chips. So, your SPR is 20?
> And that is good? Why? If your opponent bets 100,
> you will be getting 2:1 odds that the NEXT card
> will make your flush (that is 4:1). Does a SPR of
> 20 mean you can make that (bad IMO) call? Don't
> you now need to start thinking about what the
> action will be on the turn? There will be 300
> chips in the pot. Your SPR will now be down to
> just over 6? If the turn does not help you (no
> pair, no str8 draw), what do you do if your
> opponent now bets 300 chips? Once again, you are
> getting 2:1 odds for a 4:1 draw, and only 1 card
> to come. Don't you now need to start thinking
> about "implied odds" if you hit your flush?
> Actually, shouldn't you have thought about
> "implied odds" before you made the call on the
> flop? Also, if you miss everything (no pair and no
> flush) and fold, you will be down to 1600 chips.
> Now shouldn't you have thought about your M and Q
> values before you made any calls? (On the flop or
> turn). As you can see, this "SPR" concept really
> confuses me! Which poker book is it explained in?